A person is sitting in a bus that is moving with constant velocity, due to friction their is no relative velocity between bus and the person. Suddenly the bus starts to move with a constant accleration:
Inertial Frame of reference: For a person standing outside, they observe that it isn't the person being moved backward but rather the bus accelerates to a new velocity and the person due to Newton's 1st law continues to move with their original velocity until the normal force due to bus seat and the friction between them and seat accelerates them to new velocity of the bus. So if the bus has a constant acceleration $a$, the $F_\mathrm{net} = ma$ (on person in the bus)
Non-Inertial frame: For the same person sitting in the bus, initially for him, he is at rest. Then as bus starts to accelerate, the person is still acted upon by frictional force and the normal force but in his frame of reference he is not accelerating, so Newton's laws are invalid. Here is where the pseudo forces come into picture and act opposite to frictional and normal forces from bus so as to make net force zero thereby allowing us to apply 2nd law in the non-inertial frame of reference.
My doubt is, if the fictitious force is not a real force why do we still feel a force pushing us backward while sitting in accelerating car?, how can we feel a force if it isn't there? and is this the reason why fictitious forces are also called inertial forces as they do same thing as what inertia does in inertial frame? or is my understanding of fictitious forces wrong?
I am sorry if this question is too basic and sounds repetitive.