We know that $F=ma$ from Newton's second law, after modifying it a bit we can write it as a=F/m here the problem arises as here the equation tells us that force is a function of acceleration but how is that possible since acceleration is a effect of force so how can the cause of something depend upon it's effect. Now the question is not for weather acceleration cause force or the vice-versa it's just that can we write a=F/m seeing the fact that acceleration is an effect of the force?
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Yes, we say forces cause acceleration, but from the effect (acceleration) we can reason back to the cause. You are right that the equality sign masks the relation of cause and effect, but that is just what happens when we use equations to describe physical systems. Equations are cause-effect agnostic.
