I have some confusion regarding the notion of tensors in $SU(3)$ (or some other matrix Lie group, but let's keep the discussion to $SU(3)$).
For concreteness, I will refer to Peskin and Schroeder's discussion on this topic (see chapter 17.1), but I think the discussion is similar in many sources. They represent quarks by $q_i$, transforming according to the fundamental representation, and antiquarks by $\bar{q}^i$, transforming according to the anti-fundamental representation. While not spelled out very explicitly, it seems they only put the matrix indices downstairs. Hence the transformation laws should look like $$q'_{i} = U_{ij}q_j$$ and $$\bar{q}'^i = U_{ij}^* \bar{q}^j = (U^\dagger)_{ji}\bar{q}^j.$$ First of all, is this a correct understanding of their notation (Q1)?
Moving on, they define $\epsilon_{ijk}$ as the totally antisymmetric combination of three fundamental representations. Thus, it transforms according to $$\epsilon'_{ijk} = U_{il}U_{jm}U_{kn}\epsilon_{lmn} = \mathrm{det}(U)\epsilon_{ijk} = \epsilon_{ijk},$$ by virtue of $\mathrm{det}(U) = 1$. They also use the symbol $\epsilon^{ijk}$ but do not explicitly define it. If the index rules are consistent, I reckon it should transform according to $$\epsilon'^{ijk} = U_{il}^* U_{jm}^* U_{kn}^* \epsilon^{lmn} = (U^\dagger)_{li} (U^\dagger)_{mj} (U^\dagger)_{nk} \epsilon^{lmn} = \mathrm{det}(U^\dagger)\epsilon^{ijk}=\epsilon^{ijk},$$ by virtue of $\mathrm{det}(U^\dagger) = 1$. Is this a correct understanding of the meaning of $\epsilon^{ijk}$ in their notation (Q2)?
Next, they state that the only allowed (simple) hadrons are $\bar{q}^iq_i$, $\epsilon^{ijk}q_iq_jq_k$ and $\epsilon_{ijk}\bar{q}^i\bar{q}^j\bar{q}^k$, from the requirement that hadrons be invariant under $SU(3)$. However, this statement somewhat surprises me given the transformation laws established above. For any $SU(3)$ tensor $f^{ijk}$ (not related to the structure constants), where the upstairs indices would transform just like they do for $\epsilon^{ijk}$, it seems to me that the object $f^{ijk}q_iq_jq_k$ would be invariant simply by virtue of being fully contracted. To whit: $$f^{ijk}q_iq_jq_k \to f'^{ijk}q'_i q'_j q'_k = U_{il}^* U_{jm}^* U_{kn}^{*}f^{lmn}U_{ir}q_rU_{js}q_sU_{kt}q_t = (U^\dagger)_{li}U_{ir}(U^\dagger)_{mj}U_{js}(U^\dagger)_{nk}U_{kt}f^{lmn}q_rq_sq_t = \delta^l_r\delta^m_s\delta^n_tf^{lmn}q_rq_sq_t=f^{lmn}q_lq_mq_n = f^{ijk}q_iq_jq_k.$$ Am I missing anything here (Q3)?
Thinking a bit more about this, perhaps the issue lies in how we would actually go about defining the object $f^{ijk}$ introduced above. In the case of the Levi-Civita, the invariance, in the sense that the components stay the same, means that we can sensibly define the tensor $\epsilon^{ijk}$. However, for an object like $f^{ijk}$, which may not be invariant, we would have to define its components in some preferred $SU(3)$ "frame" (for lack of a better word), which probably does not make much sense. Is this where the issue lies (Q4)?
I would like to add that I am well aware that one sometimes does not view the Levi-Civita $\epsilon^{ijk}$ and $\epsilon_{ijk}$ as tensors, but rather as index symbols, not subject to any $SU(3)$ transformations. To me, this is the more sensible viewpoint. In this case, the invariance of $\epsilon^{ijk}q_iq_jq_k$ does depend crucially on the properties of the Levi-Civita, because the transformation now looks like $$\epsilon^{ijk}q_iq_jq_k \to \epsilon^{ijk}q'_i q'_j q'_k = \epsilon^{ijk}U_{ir}q_rU_{js}q_sU_{kt}q_t = \mathrm{det}(U)\epsilon^{rst}q_rq_sq_t = \epsilon^{rst}q_rq_sq_t = \epsilon^{ijk}q_iq_jq_k,$$ by virtue of $\mathrm{det}(U)=1$. However, Peskin and Schroeder do indeed define $\epsilon_{ijk}$ and $\epsilon^{ijk}$ as tensors, so this argument does not apply.