I know this might be a general or well known topic, but please bear with me, since I have a very specific question regarding this and I want to see specifically whether there is a flaw in my reasoning or logic.
We are using the $(+---)$ metric here.
So basically, we know that
$$\Lambda ^{\mu} \ _{\nu} (\Lambda^{-1})^{\nu}\ _{\rho} = \delta^{\mu} \ _{\rho}$$ So that $\Lambda \Lambda^{-1} = 1$.
And we have $$(\Lambda^{-1})^{\nu} \ _{\rho} = (\Lambda)_{\rho} \ ^{\nu}$$ which seems to imply that $\Lambda^{-1} = \Lambda^T$
like an orthogonal transformation.
However, if we plug that in the original equation, we get:
$$\Lambda ^{\mu} \ _{\nu} (\Lambda)_{\rho} \ ^{\nu} = \delta^{\mu} \ _{\rho}$$
which is not matrix multiplication, since the column and row number don't match. This seems to contradict the statement that $$\Lambda \Lambda^{-1} = 1$$
How do I resolve this paradox? Is $\Lambda$ an orthogonal transformation (in Minkowski space) or not? The indices are confusing me here.
 
     
     
    