I just had a glimpse of Feynman's statistical mechanics. On page 8, I saw a 'third' definition of pressure:
$$ P = - \frac{\partial U }{\partial V} (V, S) . $$
I am curious why it is $S$ but not $T$. Could anyone give an argument? At least personally, I tend to treat energy $U$ as a function of $V$ and $T$ instead of $V$ and $S$.
The question is, why is it not
$$ P = - \frac{\partial U }{\partial V} (V, T) $$