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Lets say there are 2 point particles A and B separated by a distance $x_{0}$ whose velocities are $v_{1}$ and $v_{2}$ along the positive X-axis respectively such that $v_{1}>v_{2}$

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We can clearly see that at some time, A will over take B.

Now we consider the exact scenario in a different way.

A covers $x_{0}$ in $t_{0}s$. In the $t_{0}s$, B covers a distance $x_{1}$. A covers $x_{1}$ in $t_{1}s$ and so on. Now every time A reaches B's old position, B has already moved forward from there.

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After a while, $x_{n}$ is very small but still not 0. Then how exactly does A overtake B?

2 Answers2

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The time taken to overtake by the first method is obviously

$$\frac{x_o}{v_1-v_2}$$

By the second method, the time taken is given by the infinite series: $$\frac{x_o}{v_1} \left(1 + \frac{v_2}{v_1}+ \frac{v_2^2}{v_1^2} ... \right ) = \frac{x_o}{v_1 (1-v_2/v_1)}= \frac{x_o}{v_1-v_2} $$

Where is the paradox? An infinite series can give a finite answer.

Physiker
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If A is faster than B, we know that eventually, A will overtake B. xn will indeed never be 0, but it is because we are only considering things before A overtakes B. Suppose A's speed is twice that of B and it took a time t0 for A to come to initial position of B. For next x2 distance, it will take t0/2, for x3 time interval will be t0/4 and so on. After a while, xn will be low, but the time interval taken by A to cover xn will also be very low. The sum of time interval will be: t0(1 + 1/2 + 1/4 + 1/8 ....) and so on till infinite terms. This sum is actually finite(Its sum of infinite GP, you can look it up) and total time taken will be 2t0. The problem in your approach was that you were considering only distance and not time. Therefore you never reached the instant 2t0, where A overtakes B.