8

As a preface, I know there are "more" correct ways to calculate the Lamb shift and decay rate through full blown QED, but this is what's most familiar with me, so I would appreciate an answer in this realm (without going to full QED and talking about poles etc.)

When following the Wigner-Weisskopf method for spontaneous decay of a hydrogen atom, we assume an exponential ansatz. Using this method, we can find a real and imaginary exponent for the initial state lifetime. This represents the decay rate, and the Lamb shift.

We get a finite lifetime, but the Lamb shift diverges. Typically at this point we say that the Lamb shift needs to be dealt with through renormalization, but are happy with the finite decay rate (which is apparently quite close to experiment).

One typical way to deal with the Lamb shift infinity is to follow Bethe and subtract away the self-energy contribution from a free electron. The remaining integral still diverges, but if we use a cutoff energy around ~mc^2, then we get a lamb shift of about ~1040 MHz, which is reasonably close to experiment.

One way to think about this subtraction is that the bare mass in the Hamiltonian is adjusted to remove the effects of the free-electron self-energy.

Now my question, if we are effectively adding mass counter-terms to our Hamiltonian to adjust our final calculation for the Lamb shift frequency, why does this not also affect the decay frequency? Although renormalization is already somewhat strange, I don't understand in this specific instance why we can add terms to change the calculation of infinite quantities, while finite quantities like the decay rate (which do depend on the form of the Hamiltonian, and what specific mass is used) can be taken as their "non-renormalized" (no mass counter term in Hamiltonian) value? Hope that makes sense.

VoulKons
  • 16,825
  • 2
  • 45
  • 73

1 Answers1

10

Mass renormalization is indeed introduced to cure the divergent behaviour of the real part of the self-energy, while the imaginary part (giving the lifetime) is seemingly finite. However, in the naive calculation, it actually contains the unobservable (and infinite) bare mass. The lifetime formula must also be calculated from the renormalized formalism, but in the end this will make no difference, we will end up with formally the same expression; the only difference is that the observed (that is, renormalized) mass $m_\text{obs}$ enters the lifetime formula as well.

In the old-fashioned PT (i.e. non-relativistic QM coupled to a quantized electromagnetic field), we find that the renormalized Hamiltonian of the hydrogen atom reads $$ H=H_\text{atom}+H_\text{rad}+H_\text{int} \ , $$ where $$ H_\text{atom}=\frac{P^2}{2m_\text{obs}}-\frac{Z\alpha}{r} $$ is the Hamiltonian of the hydrogen without any field (with eigenstates and eigenvalues $\phi_n$, $E_n$), $$ H_\text{rad}=\frac{1}{2} \int\mathrm{d}^3r\left[\Pi^2+(\nabla\times\vec{A})^2\right] $$ is the Hamiltonian of the field ($\vec{A}$ and $\vec{\Pi}=-\vec{E}_\perp$ being the vector potential and its conjugate momentum, respectively), and $$ H_\text{int}=\frac{e}{m_\text{obs}}\vec{P}\cdot\vec{A}+\frac{e^2}{2m_\text{obs}}A^2+\left(\frac{\delta m}{m_\text{obs}}\right)\frac{P^2}{2m_\text{obs}} $$ is the usual minimal coupling interaction. The only non-standard term is the last one, the mass counterterm, which is introduced to cancel the divergence of the self-energy. In the lowest order and in the dipole approximation, $\delta m$ reads $$ \delta m=\frac{4\alpha}{3\pi}\Lambda \ , $$ as $\Lambda\rightarrow\infty$. See Chapter 11. of Molecular Quantum Electrodynamics by Craig & Thirunamachandran for the derivation of this Hamiltonian with this counterterm (and also Chapter 3.4 of Relativistic Quantum Mechanics and Field Theory by Gross for some details on the following PT calculation).

When calculating the energy shift and decay rate in the renormalized theory, everything goes on just like in the naive "Rayleigh-Schrödinger PT + dipole approximation" calculation (the $\sim A^2$ term gives an infinite but state-independent "constant" contribution which can be absorbed by the redefinition of zero energy, while the $\sim\vec{P}\cdot\vec{A}$ term yields in second order a state-dependent linear divergence cancelled by the mass counterterm), and we end up with $$ \Delta {\cal{E}}_{n,\Lambda}=\frac{2\alpha}{3\pi m^2_\text{obs}} \sum_m(E_m-E_n)|\langle\phi_n|\vec{P}|\phi_m\rangle|^2 \int_0^\Lambda\mathrm{d}k\frac{1}{E_m-E_n+k} $$ for the $n$-th state. The integrand can become singular for excited states when $k=E_n-E_m$. This must be avoided with an appropriate $i0^+$ prescription, that is, by formally adding a small imaginary part to the energy: $$ \begin{aligned} \Delta {\cal{E}}_{n,\Lambda}&=\frac{2\alpha}{3\pi m^2_\text{obs}} \sum_m(E_m-E_n)|\langle\phi_n|\vec{P}|\phi_m\rangle|^2 \int_0^\Lambda\mathrm{d}k\frac{1}{E_m-E_n+k-i0^+} \\ &=\Delta {{E}}_{n,\Lambda}-\frac{i}{2}\Gamma_n \ , \end{aligned} $$ where $$ \Delta {{E}}_{n,\Lambda}=\frac{2\alpha}{3\pi m^2_\text{obs}} \sum_m(E_m-E_n)|\langle\phi_n|\vec{P}|\phi_m\rangle|^2 {\cal{P}}\int_0^\Lambda\mathrm{d}k\frac{1}{E_m-E_n+k} \ , $$ and $$ \begin{aligned} \Gamma_n&= -\frac{4\alpha}{3 m^2_\text{obs}} \sum_m(E_m-E_n)|\langle\phi_n|\vec{P}|\phi_m\rangle|^2 \int_0^\infty\mathrm{d}k\delta(E_m-E_n+k) \\ &=\frac{4\alpha}{3 m^2_\text{obs}} \sum_{\substack{m \\ E_n>E_m}}(E_n-E_m)|\langle\phi_n|\vec{P}|\phi_m\rangle|^2 \\ &=\frac{4\alpha}{3} \sum_{\substack{m \\ E_n>E_m}}(E_n-E_m)^3|\langle\phi_n|\vec{r}|\phi_m\rangle|^2 \ . \end{aligned} $$ We used $$ \frac{1}{x\pm i0^+}={\cal{P}}\frac{1}{x}\mp i\pi\delta(x) $$ to separate the real and imaginary parts, and we were free to let $\Lambda\rightarrow\infty$ in the decay rate formula. The expression for $\Gamma_n=1/\tau_n$ looks just like the one calculated naively, but with $m_\text{obs}$ instead of the bare mass.

Note that the decay rate was extracted from an essentially time-independent PT formalism by avoiding poles along the real line, an approach reminiscent of the treatment of resonances. The correct choice of the sign of $i0^+$ is better motivated in the full QED derivation; in this context, not much more can be said other than choosing $-i0^+$ instead of $+i0^+$ is necessary to prevent an unphysical, exponentially growing probability.

The real part providing the energy shift is still logarithmically divergent. Bethe simply introduced the cut-off $\Lambda=m$, while in the QED treatment, this divergence is cancelled by the infrared divergence coming from the $F_1$ form factor of the one-loop vertex correction. Note, however, that the violently singular nature of the self-energy (containing both linear and logarithmic divergences) is an artifact of the dipole approximation. If one calculated the one-loop self-energy in the old-fashioned PT but without dipole approximation, then only a single logarithmic divergence should be treated in the mass renormalization, and the remaining parts would be finite; see Lett. Math. Phys. 24 115 (1992) for details.