I’m having a hard time wrapping my head around how the measurement of particle A does not affect the state of an entangled particle B even if no superluminal speeds exist.
Suppose Alice makes a measurement. Before she does, Bob’s particle is in an indefinite state. After she does, Bob’s particle is in a definite state. Let’s assume they’re anti correlated.
Regardless of whether or not Alice can communicate this information faster than the speed of light, a state change occurred, as long as we define an indefinite state to be a kind of state. If this state change occurred, how did Alice’s measurement not affect Bob’s particle’s state?
One cannot just say that this is merely an update in knowledge even if there is no realism. It is still going from an indefinite state to a definite state on the basis of that.
If we treat both particles as one indivisible but non local unit that has a combined indefinite state and then has a definite state when only either of them are measured, then and only then does it seem to imply no effects, correct? But isn’t this very treatment now assuming non locality? We are essentially considering two objects that could be light years apart as one.