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If time measured by one observer moving at a greater velocity than another observer is observed to be passing more slowly, does this imply that there's such a thing as "absolute time" or "base time" which would be the passage of time as measured by a completely static observer of the universe? Basically time as measured from the universe's inertial frame of reference.

I mean given the speed with which the milky way is hurtling through space, doesn't that mean we on earth are experiencing a dramatically slowed down version of this "true time" or "base time" or whatever you would call it?

Qmechanic
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2 Answers2

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If time measured by one observer moving at a greater velocity than another observer is observed to be passing more slowly, does this imply that there's such a thing as "absolute time" or "base time" which would be the passage of time as measured by a completely static observer of the universe?

No. This is not implied because the same is true for each observer’s frame. Observer A’s clock is time dilated in B’s frame and observer B’s clock is time dilated in A’s frame. The situation is symmetrical and does not identify or distinguish between the two observers or their frames.

Dale
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Your question is based on a misunderstanding about the meaning of time dilation. My watch ticks every second. In the frame of a passing muon, the interval between each tick of my watch might be a minute, say, but that effect is entirely symmetrical- a watch in the muon frame would tick every second, just as my watch does, but the interval between each tick on such a watch would be a minute in my frame.