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As the title suggests, my question is does $U(n)\simeq SU(n)\times U(1)$ for general $n$?

If so, how does one prove it?

If not, is at least $U(n)\supset SU(n)\times U(1)$? What is the group $\frac{U(n)}{SU(n)\times U(1)}$ in that case?

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