In an undergraduate thermodynamics book, the authors use the case of free expansion of an ideal gas to argue that the internal energy $U$ of the gas depends only on its temperature $T$. I'm not sure if the authors mean to say that $\biggl(\frac{\partial U}{\partial P}\biggr)_V = \biggl(\frac{\partial U}{\partial V}\biggr)_P = 0$ or if $V = V(T)$ and $P = P(T)$ - in other words, all changes in internal energy are ultimately attributable to changes in temperature. I assume it must be the latter.
Supposing it is the former - i.e. $\biggl(\frac{\partial U}{\partial P}\biggr)_V = \biggl(\frac{\partial U}{\partial V}\biggr)_P = 0$, then let us consider the adiabatic expansion of a gas from volume $V_1$ to $V_2$. The First Law tells us that
\begin{eqnarray} \Delta U &=& Q – W \\ &=& 0 -P(V_2 – V_1) = - P\Delta V \end{eqnarray}
What am I to conclude from this?