It's usually stated that "astrophysical black holes are expected to have non-zero angular momentum, due to their formation via collapse of rotating stellar objects". In other words: rotating stellar objects carry orbital angular momentum, which is expected to be in the final black hole configuration.
However, the Kerr solution doesn't carry an orbital angular momentum, but the computation of the ADM angular momentum only provides a Pauli-Lubanski contribution, which is supposed to represent the intrinsic angular momentum of a system in General Relativity:
$W_\mu=\frac{1}{2}\epsilon_{\mu\nu\rho\sigma}J^{\nu\rho}P^{\sigma}$
Where is the orbital angular momentum in the astrophysical black hole created after the collapse? If the astrophysical object only has orbital angular momentum in the collapse, where does the intrinsic angular momentum of the Kerr black hole come from? Or is the usual interpretation of the Pauli-Lubanski contribution in General Relativity wrong?