While playing around with the Einstein field equations and trying to derive the Kerr metric, I came across the following derivation from Einstein's field equations:
$$R_{\mu\nu} = 8\pi \left(T_{\mu\nu} - \frac{1}{2} T g_{\mu\nu}\right)$$
With the definition $T = T_{\mu\nu}g^{\mu\nu}$.
Now, I'm wondering whether those equations are (all of a sudden) really linear? Have the field equations lost their nonlinearity while the operations that lead to this derivative? Or do I get something wrong, are they still non-linear? The right hand side contains only energy & mass, and the left hand side contains only geometry. To me, it seems that you can just add up the right side $\left(T_{\mu\nu} - \frac{1}{2} T g_{\mu\nu}\right)$ to a new $T'_{\mu\nu}$ - and then, the result is suddenly
$$R_{\mu\nu} = 8\pi T'_{\mu\nu}$$
Which, for me, looks like a linear version of the famous field equations. And, yeah, that's kind of surprising for me, because they used to be nonlinear which causes so many difficulties with their solvation. How can we (have we) to interpret that result??
And, addendum: What would be a possible solution ($R_{\mu\nu}$ and $T_{\mu\nu}$) for the equation $$R_{\mu\nu} = 8\pi T'_{\mu\nu}$$?