In the so-called Stückelberg mechanism we have the BF term
$$ \sim \int m\; B_2\wedge F ~, $$
where the field $B_2$ is a 2-form and $F$ is the field strength arising from a $U(1)$.
The Stückelberg mechanism allows to introduce a scalar field $\eta$ (Axion) to rewrite the BF term in a local equivalent form according to
$$ \int_{4d} m\; B_2 \wedge F \rightarrow -\frac{1}{2}\int_{4d}(m\;A+d\eta)^2 \; $$ with $F=dA$.
Now, the 2-form $B_2$ is related (Hodge duals) to a $0$-form $\Phi$ in four dimensions.
$$ B_2 \sim -\Phi~. $$
Thus, it seems that we can get the following
$$ \int_{4d} m\; B_2 \wedge F \rightarrow -\frac{1}{2}\int_{4d}(m\;A+d\Phi)^2. $$
Question:
Why can we assume that the $\Phi$ corresponds to the axion $\eta$?
What happens to the minus? Shouldn't we get:
$$ \int_{4d} m\; B_2 \wedge F \rightarrow -\frac{1}{2}\int_{4d}(m\;A-d\Phi)^2. $$
The Stückelberg mechanism can be found e.g. here on page 63.