Every book says that friction is independent of surface area in contact. It is pretty obvious that equation for our friction doesn't have any "area term" in it.
But in some cases it seems counterintuitive. The definition of friction states that it is resisitive force emerged from attractive forces between molecules of the objects. Now lets imagine a cube made from say $1\times 1\,\,m^2$ plates. Now we place it on a rough surface. Only molecules which are on surface of the plate in contact, participate in creating friction (static or kinetic). Now we disassemble the cube in individual plates, and we make $3\times 2\,\,m^2$ rectangle out of it. Now all plates molecules in attration with the surface, so it seems that friction should be dependent on area, but it is not. Nearly all books I read dont give any satisfying explanation for it. So, my doubt is that why friction is independent of surface area, and would like explanation with my cube's context.