The trigger for this question is from "University Physics with Modern Physics" (by Young & Freedman) when they mentioned that Ohm's law is not actually a law; this sentiment was echoed in "Physics for Scientists & Engineers – A Strategic Approach with Modern Physics" (by Knight). The rationale given was that Ohm's law is not a general description of all matter; same was argued for Hooke's law as well.
By their rationale, shouldn't Newton's laws of motion not be considered a law as well since it will break down at the high-energy regime (I think)? From what I understand, all laws have their limitations and will break down at some point; so why do these authors single out Ohm's law and Hooke's law? What exactly constitute a "fundamental law of nature"?
EDIT: While this question has a somewhat similar heading to this post, the essence of the questions differ. My question heads in the direction of "when can an empirical relationship be considered a fundamental law"; on the other hand, the other post has already made the assumption that the empirical relations is a law and is interested in "which law is more fundamental".