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I know a lot of people already asked about this, but i still can't figure out why it's impossible to measure the one-way speed of light. Sorry if it's a dumb question, but I'd really like understand.

Let's say we have to clocks, both at 0.00s, or off (so we don't need to sync them) (1).

We fire a beam of light, so the clock 1 sensor is triggered, the clock 2 is still at 0.00 (2).

The beam of light reaches the second clock and triggers it (3).

Now if we subtract, we have clock1 - clock2 = t (time for light to travel d meters), so c = d / t. Of course, this is limited by the precision of the sensors, but fundamentally, why wouldn't this work?

One-way speed of light experiment

benrg
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FoxYou
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1 Answers1

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Of course, this is limited by the precision of the sensors, but fundamentally, why wouldn't this work?

In your diagram you have 4.33 on one clock at the same time as 0.8 on the other. The only way to know that 4.33 goes with 0.8 and not some other time is to assume a simultaneity convention. That assumption defines the one way speed of light, not the experiment.

Dale
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