1

In my textbooks, youtube videos, different websites, I have seen that during calculations regarding interference of waves we derive the equations in such a way as if there is no distribution of energy by waves., I mean if it is a circular wave then the diameter of locus wavefronts will increase witth the passage of time by indulging more and more particles and involving new particles has to be done by distributing energy(as far as I know). So shouldn't this cause change in amplitude as time passes? Moreover aren't each wavefronts subject to countless interferences causing it to distort largely from its initial form?

An intuitive approach will be much more helpful. Thank you.

MSKB
  • 624

1 Answers1

1

Normally we use coherent lasers or collimated beams of coherent atoms in interferometers. The spreading of the waves in the transverse directions relative to the propagation is taken to be negligible over the extent of the wave propagation. Even if this isn't so, the phase of the wave is independent of the amplitude, the subsequent interference caused by a phase difference only diminishing in amplitude with any spreading of the wave over space.

It is not necessary to discuss the additional complexity of how the amplitude of a particular wave evolves to explain the cause of interference, a phase shift. This is probably the most likely reason why explanations of interference leave this out.

jamie1989
  • 1,846