The Helmholtz theorem tells us that any vector function $\vec{F(\vec{r})}$ that goes to zero sufficiently fast can be expressed as $$\vec{F(\vec{r})}=\nabla(\frac{-1}{4\pi}\int\frac{\nabla'\cdot\vec{F(\vec{r}')}}{R}dV')+\nabla\times(\frac{1}{4\pi}\int\frac{\nabla'\times\vec{F(\vec{r}')}}{R}dV')$$
where $R=|\vec{r}-\vec{r'}|$ is the magnitude of the separation vector. Now from Maxwell's equations (assuming magnetostatics) we have that $\nabla \cdot \vec{B}=0$ and $\nabla \times \vec{B}=\mu_0\vec{J}$. Combining these facts with the Helmholtz theorem above, we get that the magnetic field (within the domain of magnetostatics) should take the form $$\vec{B(\vec{r})}=\nabla\times\frac{\mu_o}{4\pi}\int\frac{\vec{J(\vec{r}')}}{R}dV' \tag{$1$}$$ Now the above should be equivalent to the Biot-Savart law for volume currents which is $$\vec{B(\vec{r})}=\frac{\mu_0}{4\pi}\int\frac{\vec{J(\vec{r}')\times\hat{R}}}{R^2}dV'\tag{$2$}$$ But these two equations are noticeably different (at least in their present form). Is there any way to manipulate equation (1) such that we end up with equation (2) ?
Any help would be most appreciated!