I've recently been interested in parity violating Lagrangians in general relativity.
One can obtain them using the totally antisymmetric tensor $\epsilon_{\alpha\beta\mu\nu}$. For instance the electromagnetic field Lagrangian,
$\mathcal{L}_{\rm EM} = -\sqrt{|g|}\frac{1}{4}F_{\mu\nu}F^{\mu\nu}$,
which does not violate parity, has an analog that does change sign under a parity transformation
$\mathcal{L*}_{\rm EM} = -\sqrt{|g|}\frac{1}{4}\epsilon_{\alpha\beta\mu\nu}F^{\alpha\beta}F^{\mu\nu}$
These are just examples to illustrate what I am talking about.
My question is more general: it seems like any Lagrangian that violates parity by the inclusion of $\epsilon_{\alpha\beta\mu\nu}$ will change sign if one coordinate changes sign (a parity transform). This changes the "handedness" of the coordinate system, changing the sign of $\epsilon_{\alpha\beta\mu\nu}$. Since time and space in general relativity are really not separated (except time has a negative associated eigenvalue in $g_{\mu\nu}$), wouldn't any parity violating Lagrangian as above also be time-symmetry violating, since flipping the sign of the time coordinate changes the handedness of the 4-dimensional space-time, and the sign of $\epsilon_{\alpha\beta\mu\nu}$?
The only way this would not be true is if somehow the fact that time is associated with the negative eigenvalue in $g_{\mu\nu}$, $\epsilon_{\alpha\beta\mu\nu}$ does not change sign under time reversal, but I'm not seeing how that could be.