When studying CFT in Euclidean signature, for the purpose of radial quantization, we conformally map the Euclidean cylinder to the Euclidean plane (minus the origin, which I ignore).
- Can one also conformally map the Lorentzian cylinder to the Lorentzian plane (Minkowski space)?
Concretely, in Euclidean signature, as described e.g. here, we can take the Euclidean-signature cylinder $\mathbb{R} \times S^{d-1}$ with $ds^2 = dz^2 + R^2 d\Omega_{d-1}^2$ and define coordinate transformation $z = R \log(r/R)$ to obtain $ds^2 = R^2 \frac{dr^2}{r^2} + R^2 d\Omega_{d-1}^2 = \frac{R^2}{r^2} \left[ dr^2 + r^2 d\Omega_{d-1}^2 \right]$, which is conformally equivalent to $ds^2 = dr^2 + r^2 d\Omega_{d-1}^2$, i.e. the Euclidean plane.
If we used the same transformation beginning instead with the Lorentzian cylinder $ds^2 = -dz^2 + R^2 d\Omega_{d-1}^2$, we would obtain $ds^2 = -dr^2 + r^2 d\Omega_{d-1}^2$. However, this is not the usual Lorentzian plane, which has metric $ds^2 = -dt^2 + d\vec{x}^2$. So at least with this approach, it's not clear whether the Lorentzian cylinder may be conformally mapped to the Lorentzian plane. (I believe a local patch of the Lorentzian cylinder may be conformally mapped to the Lorentzian plane, I'm interested in global mappings.)
If the Lorentzian cylinder is conformally equivalent to the Lorentzian plane, then they share the same conformal group, but if it's not, then I'm further curious:
- What is the conformal group of the Lorentzian cylinder?
(I admit this is a math question, but the sort that's likely answered by a physicist with CFT experience.)