In this question I read:
I am writing this because of the mostly hostile reception given to my question about entanglement. It was made clear that it was pure nonsense to want to examine what a world without entanglement would be as QM foundations were entirely dependent on it.
I'm not so sure I understand this. Of course, QM is a non-local theory. All values of the position of a particle are involved in the wavefunction corresponding to the particle. But this is the case also when entanglement is not involved. Or can we say that all positions are entangled? When a measurement is made, and a small range of the values of the particle's position is measured, the other values can't be measured anymore (shortly after the measurement). Is this the same as making a measurement on the spin of one of two particles that are lightyears away from each other? This is only the case if the two particles were in contact with each other somewhere in the past. A single particle is always in contact with itself, so does entanglement (for single particles) refer to this? Can we say that all positions are entangled? Or is this non-locality?
If I measure the position of a single particle, then upon measurement the wavefunction has "collapsed" to a smaller range of positions. Just so, the two spins of separated particles "collapse" upon spin-measurement of one particle. So why we say that spins are entangled and positions not.
Can't we say that the wavefunction is a linear combination of position "eigenstates" (or Dirac delta distributions) with corresponding eigenvalues, the values of position?