There seems to be general disbelief over this formula, so I'm challenging someone to show me the fallacy in the proof below.
The assumptions are that the two objects are rigid and spherically symmetric and that the fluid is of uniform density and incompressible. Note that the gravitational fields induce pressure gradients in the fluid and these affect the force between the two objects.
Proof:
- The mutual force between the two objects is measured as the change in total force on the first object when the second object is introduced.
- The introduction of the second object changes the mass distribution and the gravitational fields and the pressure gradients in the fluid.
- The change in mass distribution is such that a spherical volume with the second object's mass, $M_2$, replaces a spherical volume of fluid with mass, $m_2$. The change in mass is $M_2- m_2$.
- As a result of the change in mass, the gravitational field in the surrounding fluid also changes. For Newtonian gravity, the change in the field is $\Delta g = -G\frac{M_2-m_2}{r^2}$, where r is the distance from the center of the sphere. (Note: the change in the field also causes a change in the pressure gradients in the fluid.)
- As a result, there is a change in force on the first object. The force has two components, one arising from the change in gravitational force on the object and the other arising from the change in the pressure gradient across the object's surface (i.e. a change in buoyancy force).
- According to Newton, the first force is $\Delta g M_1$. According to Archimedes, the second force is -$\Delta g m_1$ where, again, $m_1$ is the mass of the displaced fluid. The net change in force is $\Delta g(M_1-m_1)$.
- Substituting $\Delta $g, gives us the final version of the formula. The mutual force between two spherically symmetric objects immersed in a uniform fluid is $-G\frac{(M_1-m_1)(M_2-m_2)}{r^2}$. The force acts along the line joining their centers.