So let we have a magnetic field which is $$B_\mu=\frac{q}{2}\frac{x_\mu}{|x|^3}-2\pi q\delta_{3\mu}\theta(x_3)\delta{(x_1)}\delta{(x_2)},\tag{4.65}$$ where $\theta$ is step function and $\delta{(x_\mu)}$ is dirac delta.
So in many places (for example Polyakov's book on gauges and strings at eq 4.64 and eq 4.65), it is said that for this magnetic field we have
$$\nabla\times\vec{B}=0 \tag{4.64}$$
but I can't see how, because the curl of the second term is not zero at least if I take the curl naively it will involve derivatives of Dirac delta and will be non-zero.