My question is very simple: if I have a vector field $\boldsymbol{\phi}(t,\boldsymbol{x})$ defined inside an $n$-dimensional manifold $\mathcal{M}_n$ to which $\boldsymbol{x}$ belongs, why should it be $\boldsymbol{\phi}(t,\partial\mathcal{M}_n)=0$? What I mean with this abuse of notation is, why should the variation of a field be null at the spatial boundaries of a system?
I read for example this, but didn't help. I imagined a very simple system:
Consider a glass of water. I take the height of the surface point by point in every temporal instant and I compare the measure with a reference; I so obtain a field $h(t,\boldsymbol{x})$ that associates an height $h$ to every point $\boldsymbol{x}$ of the bidimensional surface for every time instant.
But if I want to describe the temporal evolution of the perturbed water surface I (apparently) cannot consider $h(t,\partial\mathcal{M}_2)=0$, because water it's free to move at the boundaries: just take a glass of water and prove it! At the same time, just outside the boundaries the problem is not defined, so I don't get the passage from physics to strict mathematics.
So, is it possible to define problems with $\boldsymbol{\phi}(t,\boldsymbol{x})\neq 0$ for some $\boldsymbol{x}\in\partial\mathcal{M}_n$, or it's not? What would happen in the glass of water problem?