Mansuripur's Paradox involves a magnet moving at relativistic speeds in an external electric field.
Additional: thanks to Retarded Potential, who found the original paper.
If I understand correctly, the fictitious charges on either side of the magnet should cause a torque, which of course does not actually exist. Apparently this is conventionally resolved by adding an (equally fictitious) internal angular momentum. Mansuripur appears to be arguing that a better resolution would be to add a (fictitious) additional term to the Lorentz force law.
Am I right in thinking fictitious charges are involved? If so, why are they introduced, i.e., what is the advantage in doing so? If not, where does the torque really come from?
