Suppose we have some lattice classical spin system. The correlation function is defined as
$$\Gamma_{ij}=\langle S_iS_j\rangle -\langle S_i\rangle \langle S_j\rangle $$ It is often said that
$$ \Gamma_{ij}\sim e^{-|i-j|/\xi}$$ where $\xi$ is the correlation length (this is, if I understand correctly, the definition of correlation length). Is there a way to, if not prove, at least argument that this must be the case, while being agnostic to any particular choice of Hamiltonian, beyond assuming that it is local in some way? I understand that intuitively the correlation must decay, but why exponentially?
Also, can I interpret this definition of $\xi$ literally? Suppose the system is translationally invariant and $\gamma=\Gamma_{ii}$ is the same for every $i$, can I say $$\Gamma_{ij}=\gamma e^{-|i-j|/\xi} $$ and hence
$$\xi= \frac{|i-j|}{\log\gamma-\log\Gamma_{ij}}$$ for every $i,j$? I find it hard to believe that this quantity doesn't ever depend on $i,j$. If this is indeed true, there must be some locality requirements on the Hamiltonian. What are they?