I am sorry if this question is too stupid...
We know that Yang-Mills equation (without source) can be written as $$D^\mu F_{\mu\nu}=0,\tag{1}$$ where $$D^{\mu}=\partial^\mu-ig A^{\mu}$$ and $$A^\mu=A^{\mu a} T^a,\\ F_{\mu\nu}=F_{\mu\nu}^a T^a.$$ Here $T^a$ are the generators of the gauge group and satisfy $$[T^a,T^b]=if^{abc}T^c. \tag{2}$$
So far, everything is fine. But usually, we also say that Eq. (1) can be written as (see, e.g., wikipedia)
$$\partial^\mu F_{\mu\nu}^a+g f^{abc}A^{\mu b}F^{c}_{\mu\nu}=0.$$ I was wondering how to derive this equation from Eq. (1). From Eq. (1), we have $$(\partial^\mu-igA^{\mu a}T^a)(F^b_{\mu\nu}T^b)=0.$$ So we have $$-igA^{\mu a}T^a F^b_{\mu\nu}T^b{\stackrel{?}{=}}g f^{abc} A^{\mu a}F^b_{\mu\nu} T^c.$$ Apparently, relation (2) has been used. But how can we use this relation? How can I see that the "a" and "b" are antisymmetric in $A^{\mu a} F^b_{\mu\nu}$ such that we can take $T^a T^b\rightarrow T^{[a}T^{b]}=[T^a,T^b]/2$? Also, what about the factor $1/2$ here?