0

Suppose we have a volume $V$ containing a charge distribution defined by $\rho (\textbf{x})$.

The amount of charge $q~(P)$ located at an arbitrary point $P(x_{0},y_{0},z_{0})$ is :

$$q(P)=\int_{x_{0}}^{x_{0}}\int_{y_{0}}^{y_{0}}\int_{z_{0}}^{z_{0}}\rho(\textbf{x}) \,\mathrm dx\,\mathrm dy\mathrm \,dz=0 \,C$$

This means that the charge at each point insde of $\,V$ is equal to zero coulomb, yet $V$ was defined to be a volume containing charges.

Where does this contradiction come from?

MarianD
  • 2,089
Hilbert
  • 1,302

2 Answers2

2

The charge density of a point charge $q$ at $\mathbf{r}_0$ is a Dirac delta function:

$$\rho(\mathbf{r})=q\delta^{(3)}(\mathbf{r}-\mathbf{r}_0).$$

Its integral over any volume containing $\mathbf{r}_0$ is $q$, not 0.

However, you didn’t integrate over any volume at all.

G. Smith
  • 52,489
1

The contradiction is that your integral is not covering any volume. The easy answer is that, by definition, the amount of charge $\text dq$ contained in a volume $\text dV$ at location $\mathbf x$ is just $$\text dq=\rho(\mathbf x)\,\text dV$$

However, if you wanted to relate this to the integral you could just look at a cubic element of length $2\delta$ on each side centered on your point, and then look at what happens as $\delta$ approaches $0$. $$q=\int_{x_0-\delta}^{x_0+\delta}\int_{y_0-\delta}^{y_0+\delta}\int_{z_0-\delta}^{z_0+\delta}\rho(\mathbf x)\,\text dz\,\text dy\,\text dx$$ $$\lim_{\delta\to0}\,q=\text dq=\rho(x_0,y_0,z_0)\,\text dV$$

Something to keep in mind that it seems like is tripping you up: $\text dV$ is not a point. It is still a volume. $\text dV$ technically still has an "infinite number of points" contained within it.

BioPhysicist
  • 59,060