$\def\br{{\bf r}} \def\bF{{\bf F}}$
Consider the following system. Two particles, equal masses, no
external forces. Force acting on particle #1 (due to particle #2):
$$\bF_1 = k_1 (\br_2 - \br_1).$$
Force acting on particle #2 (due to particle #1):
$$\bF_2 = k_2 (\br_1 - \br_2).$$
You can verify that this system satisfies
- isotropy of space (each force is always directed towards the other particle)
- homogeneity of space (a translation of system leaves forces
invariant)
- homogemeity of time (forces do no depend on time).
Yet Newton's third law isn't satisfied if $k_1\ne k_2$. Total momentum isn't conserved, com is accelerated...
How can it be? The point is that @AbhimanyuPallaviSudhir is wrong:
conservation of momentum is not equivalent to translational
invariance. Or, to be more precise: it's not equivalent to
translation invariance of forces - invariance of Lagrangian is
required. Only if there is an invariant Lagrangian Noether's theorem can be proven.
But the system I defined admits of no Lagrangian. Actually its forces don't derive from a potential.