I have been driving myself mad trying to prove it one way or the other, I understand how it is derived and how to use it etc. but it still seems to me to be saying that (m/s)=(rad/s)*(m) which I don't think is dimensionally homogenous, what happens to the radians. Couldn't find anything on the internet about the homogenuity of it. I am probably just being stupid but please if anyone could shed some light on this that would be amazing.
Asked
Active
Viewed 60 times
1 Answers
0
What you call angular rotation is angular velocity. The dimension of angular velocity is one over time, because the angle is dimensionless.
flaudemus
- 2,239