For concreteness, let's say that $\rho(q,p,t)$ describes the probability density in phase space.
On a superficial level both $\frac{d\rho}{dt}$ and $\frac{\partial \rho}{\partial t} $ tells us how $\rho$ changes as time passes on.
But for $\frac{\partial \rho}{\partial t} $ we keep $q=q(t)$ and $p=p(t)$ fixed and only measure how $\rho$ changes "itself". So in a sense, for $\frac{\partial \rho}{\partial t} $ we stay at one particular location $(q,p)$ and observe how $\rho$ then changes at this particular location as time passes on. Alternatively, in order to calculate $\frac{\partial \rho}{\partial t} $ we can imagine that phase space remains frozen and we then observe if $\rho$ still changes.
In contrast, for $\frac{d\rho}{dt}$ we take into account that $q=q(t)$ and $p=p(t)$ get dragged along as time passes on, too. (Phase space, in contrast to spacetime, is not a static stage.)
So in a sense, for $\frac{\partial \rho}{\partial t} $ we consider $\rho$ as some kind of background field and observe how it changes at each particular point. But for $\frac{d\rho}{dt}$, $\rho$ is an active agent which also gets dragged along in phase space through the Hamiltonian vector field because the phase space points themselves get moved around. (This is discussed nicely, for example, here, here and here.)
Formulated differently, $\frac{d\rho}{dt}$ captures the total change which is due to two effects: the change in $\rho$ itself as measured by $\frac{\partial \rho}{\partial t}$ and the change which is due to phase space points getting moved around.
But then, how can we understand a situation for which $\frac{d\rho}{dt} =0$ and $\frac{\partial \rho}{\partial t} \neq 0 $ specifically for a situation in which $\rho$ describes a probability density in phase space.? (We have such a situation for Classical Mechanics systems. This is what Liouville's equation tells us.)