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So I have this long standing problem. I know that the wave equation (with or without source term) changes form when one makes a Galilean transformation of coordinates. My question is about the physical meaning of this fact: is it correct to say that the phenomenon which appeared as a wave in the original coordinates is not a wave anymore? Since it satisfies a different equation I have been tempted to say so, but I am still not convinced Since the everyday Experience does not adapt well to this view. I know there's something I'm missing, Maybe is stupid but I would like to have somebody else's opinion on this!

Qmechanic
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user199710
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2 Answers2

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This should possibly be a comment, but the speed of light will no longer be invariant after the transformation, it's as straightforward as that.

Try the transform yourself and see.

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The thing is just as Countto pointed out. The wave equation in one dimension without sources for speed $c$ is $$\frac{1}{c^2}\frac{\partial^2\phi}{\partial t^2}-\frac{\partial^2\phi}{\partial x^2}=0.$$

This has solutions of the form

$$\phi(x,t)=\psi_+(x-ct)+\psi_-(x+ct).$$

The first term is a wave propagating with velocity $+c$, and the second one with $-c$. The Galilean transformation is $$t'=t$$$$x'=x-vt$$ Which transforms our solution to $$\phi(x',t')=\psi_+(x'-(c-v)t')+\psi_-(x'+(c+v)t'),$$ Which is still a superposition of two waves. These waves however have different velocities, $c-v$ and $-(c+v)$.

Gabriel Golfetti
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