My book says that according to first law force applied is proportional to mass times acceleration is $$F=kma.$$ Now it says that for convenience we take $k=1$ and it does not affect anything. But my question is if we take any other value of $k$,equations of kinetic energy, motions of equation etc would change? how can we take $k=1$ conveniently. EDIT-Previous answers say that k=1 because force is defined so that it is "easy" to remember. Therefore my new question is if we define F=2Ma and then derive new results for kinetic energy etc,will they be valid too?
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