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It is an often mentioned assumption in physics that in going from classical to relativistic spacetime the main difference is that the absolute time postulate holding in the former is "relaxed" or abandoned as a physical premise wich leads to generalizing the Galilean group. But I wonder how exactly is this implemented mathematically since I don't think that just going to an indefinite signature or to a non-compact group of rotations and boosts by itself is equivalent to abolishing absolute time, even if the simultaneity slicings are no longer unique when the limiting velocity c at each frame is no longer infinity. One can of course say that the simultaneity slices are now just a convention and that the absolute time that enters in the Einstein synchronization is purely conventional, but still operationally they are still there and physical consequences are derived from these conventions. So is there something else to abolishing absolute time mathematically?

Edit:

I'll justify my question with the well known fact that there is a theory mathematically equivalent to SR, with the same transformations and giving the same predictions which was held by Lorentz himself (Lorentz ether theory) that uses a preferred frame and includes a non-observable ether with absolute time. I'm in no way trying to imply that it is the correct way to look at things, I'm just bringing it up to give an example of a theory that holds on to absolute time and is mathematically equivalent to SR, and uses the same trnasformations so they are not the element that mathematically prevents from having an absolute time.

bonif
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I think that there are two problems here:

  1. you can not, in fact, mathematically know that there is no absolute time in (a theory mathematically compatible with) Special Relativity;
  2. this question is posed as being about physics but it isn't.

I'll address these in order.

If it is the case that Lorentz Ether Theory is indeed mathematically equivalent to SR (which I think is true) then clearly the theories must make identical predictions for measurements, in particular for measurements made by clocks, observations of simultaneity and so on: if they did not then they could not be mathematically equivalent. Further, if LET contains a notion of absolute time (which I believe it does by virtue of its preferred frame), then the notion of absolute time can't be incompatible with any theory which is mathematically equivalent to SR.

And that sounds like the end of the story: it's a slightly surprising end, perhaps.

But it's not. Because, in order to support the notion of an absolute time, LET requires the notion of a preferred frame -- the frame which is at rest with respect to the aether. But in order to be compatible with SR, it requires that no experiment, even in principle could ever distinguish between this frame and any other inertial frame. In other words, the aether is unobservable, even in principle.

And thus it removes itself from the realm of experimental science and of physics in particular, because those disciplines deal with theories which make predictions which can be tested by experiment, and no experiment can ever distinguish between LET and SR: LET is SR with an additional postulate of an unobservable aether and a resulting preferred frame which can never be experimentally distinguished from any other frame as a result.

So you can choose to believe in LET, and hence absolute time, rather than SR but this is a matter of philosophy (I would say of religion but I think this may offend people), not physics, because there is no experiment you could do to distinguish the theories, and physics deals in experiments.

In fact this can be made even simpler: you can simply pick an arbitrary inertial frame (and in fact it does not need to be inertial even) in SR and define its time coordinate to be 'absolute time': LET is exactly SR with the addition of such a choice in fact. I think this makes it really clear how useless to experiment such a choice is.


As a postscript I think it's worth noting that physicists have done rather well over the last hundred years by making the essentially philosophical assumption that, if there is some concept in a theory which is not observable or which is experimentally always indistinguishable from some other concept, then that concept has no place in the theory or is identical to the other concept, respectively. That's why people don't like the notion of absolute time: it is not observable and thus a theory which does not contain it (SR as usually formulated with no privileged frame) seems hugely more appealing to one containing it (LET, with its privileged frame), even where those theories are formally identical.

However SR remains perfectly compatible with an absolute time albeit in a sense entirely useless to people interested in experimental science.

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Compare the eigenvectors of the Galilean transformation with those of the Lorentz Transformation.

An eigenvector of the Galilean transformation has the form $\left(\begin{array}{c}0\\x\end{array}\right)$, a purely spatial vector, with eigenvalue 1. This means that the lines of constant time (which are purely spatial) are preserved by the Galilean transformation. The eigenvalue of 1 means that lengths on this line are preserved.

Of course, an eigenvector of the Lorentz boost transformation has the form $\left(\begin{array}{c}1\\1\end{array}\right)$ or $\left(\begin{array}{c}1\\-1\end{array}\right)$, which point along the lightcone, with eigenvalue $k$ and $(1/k)$--the Doppler factors. Thus, lines of constant time are no longer preserved by the Lorentz boost transformation.

robphy
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The absolute time means the same and invariant time coordinate that serves as the time coordinate for all the observers. Mathematically, it is evident in Newtonian Mechanics that there is an absolute time from the Galilean transformation of coordinates between frames:

$$x'=x-vt$$ $$t'=t$$

Here, $t'=t$ represents the fact that the same time coordinate is used by every observer.

In Special Relativity, the transformation between coordinates is Lorentz transformation which read as the following:

$$x'=\dfrac{x-vt}{\sqrt{1-\dfrac{v^2}{c^2}}}$$

$$t'=\dfrac{t-\dfrac{vx}{c^2}}{\sqrt{1-\dfrac{v^2}{c^2}}}$$

Here, $t'\neq t$. This stands for the fact that the postulates of Special Relativity can't accommodate the same and invariant time coordinate for all the observers.

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Absolute time is abandoned in special relativity, as soon as one postulates that the three dimensional space is isotropic and the (measured) value for the speed of light is independent of the velocity (or speed) of the inertial observer trying to measure it. Therefore, we need to have either absolute space and absolute time (this doesn't go too well with electromagnetism, does it?), or relative space (lenth contraction) and relative time (time dilation).

DanielC
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First things, first: Lorentz's aether theory is not equivalent to Special Relativity! It leads to the wrong equations - the non-relativistic Maxwell-Thomson equations, rather than their relativistic version - the Maxwell-Minkowski equations. I'll address this in greater depth and - in the process - also answer your question.

Maxwell's equations can be divided into two parts. First, are the equations that are invariant under arbitrary coordinate transformations: $$ = ∇×,\quad = -∇φ - \frac{∂}{∂t},\quad ∇· = 0,\quad ∇× + \frac{∂}{∂t} = ,\\ ∇· = ρ,\quad ∇× - \frac{∂}{∂t} = ,\quad ∇· + \frac{∂ρ}{∂t} = 0, $$ where $$∇ = \left(\frac{∂}{∂x},\frac{∂}{∂y},\frac{∂}{∂z}\right).$$ Their general coordinate-invariance is made manifest, and shown, by writing them in the language of differential forms: $$ dA = F,\quad dF = 0,\\ dG = J,\quad dJ = 0, $$ with the differential forms given by: $$ A = ·d - φdt,\quad F = ·d + ·d∧dt,\\ G = ·d - ·d∧dt,\quad J = ρdV - ·d∧dt, $$ where $$ = (x,y,z),\quad d = (dx, dy, dz), \quad d = (dy∧dz, dz∧dx, dx∧dy),\quad dV = dx∧dy∧dz.$$

I can't overemphasize that they literally are invariant under all coordinate transforms. The coordinates $(x,y,z,t)$ don't have to be Cartesian, in the equations above, but can be any four independent functions of the space-time coordinates. The respective components for the fields are then picked off from the differential forms, themselves. The resulting equations will have exactly the same form.

Second are the equations that break this symmetry - the constitutive relations. For a medium that has at least one frame in which the constitutive relations are isotropic, they have the following form: $$ + α × = ε( + β ×),\quad - α × = μ( - β ×).$$ This is where we get to the crux of all the issues raised.

First, these equations are the form that are suitable for a geometry that has the following as its invariants: $$ βdt^2 - α\left(dx^2 + dy^2 + dz^2\right),\\ β\left(\left(\frac{∂}{∂x}\right)^2 + \left(\frac{∂}{∂y}\right)^2 + \left(\frac{∂}{∂z}\right)^2\right) - α\left(\frac{∂}{∂t}\right)^2, $$ and $$dt\frac{∂}{∂t} + dx\frac{∂}{∂x} + dy\frac{∂}{∂y} + dz\frac{∂}{∂z},\tag{1}\label{1}.$$

The symmetries that leave these invariants fixed also leave the constitutive laws fixed. In infinitesimal form, they are: $$Δ = × - βt + ,\quad Δt = -α· + τ,$$ where $(, , , τ)$ are, respectively, infinitesimal rotation, boost, spatial translation and time translation. For the coordinate differentials, the corresponding transforms are, determined by the condition $dΔ(\_) = Δd(\_)$ and are given by: $$Δd = ×d - βdt,\quad Δdt = -α·d,$$ while for the differential operators, they are determined by the requirement that ($\ref{1}$) be invariant: $$Δ(∇) = ×∇ + α\frac{∂}{∂t},\quad Δ\left(\frac{∂}{∂t}\right) = β·∇.$$

The general transforms, written in infinitesimal form, for the fields are determined by the requirement that the respective differential forms be invariant. They are $$ Δ = × - αφ,\quad Δφ = -β·,\quad Δ = × - α×,\quad Δ = × + β×,\\ Δ = × + α×,\quad Δ = × - β×,\quad Δ = × - βρ,\quad Δρ = -α·, $$ and (lest we forget): $$Δ = × - + αβ·.$$ The vacuum corresponds to the case where $ε = ε_0$, $μ = μ_0$ and $βεμ = α$, in which case (provided that $αβ||^2 < 1$), the constitutive equations become independent of $$ and can just be written as $ = ε_0 $ and $ = μ_0$. This only leads to sensible results where $αβ > 0$. In the more general case, the Maxwell-Minkowski relations are for Relativistic moving media, and $$ is present.

For the non-relativistic case, $$ is mandatory. This extra velocity vector is what pre-1905 literature is referring to when drawing a distinction between the "stationary" and "moving" Maxwell equations, and is present in all the non-relativistic treatments, specifically including those by Lorentz, Hertz and Heaviside, not just Maxwell's. It is what the "moving" in the title of Einstein's 1905 "On the Electrodynamics Of Moving Bodies" is referring to.

Now ... to answer your question: the signature is determined here by the sign of the product $αβ$. If $αβ < 0$, then we have a definite - or Euclidean - signature. If $αβ > 0$, then we have an indefinite - or Minkowski - signature. If $αβ = 0$, then we have a singular signature. This can be further subdivided into the cases where $β ≠ 0$ - the Galilean signature (where $c = ∞$ and time is absolute), where $α ≠ 0$ - the Carrollean signature (where $c = 0$ and space is "absolute", i.e. there is an absolute rest frame) and where $(α,β) = (0,0)$, the "static" signature - which corresponds to the case where both space and time are absolute (i.e. where all speeds are absolute, as is simultaneity).

Finally ... to the matter of Lorentz and the fake news "Lorentz aether theory is equivalent to Special Relativity" meme: no, it's not. That's a myth. The equations for the constitutive law that Lorentz derived are equivalent to those corresponding to the case $α = 0$ and $β ≠ 0$, which is also equivalent to the forms written by Maxwell, after making a correction posed by Heaviside and Thomson, and written by Hertz. These are all non-relativistic - as is any theory that leads to these equations: including specifically, Lorentz's aether theory.

The equations with $αβ > 0$ are equivalent to those written by Einstein and Laub, and independently by Minkowski in 1907-1908 - the Maxwell-Minkowski equations, where light speed is given by $c = \sqrt{β/α}$.

Lorentz' equations are - up to a change in notation - identical to the non-relativistic case. This is the Rosetta Stone that lays out the correspondences between Lorentz' notation and the notation used above. I also put up one for Hertz, in one of my replies, which (if I hunt it down and find it) I will add as a comment. For Heaviside, I haven't written up a Rosetta Stone, yet.

NinjaDarth
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