In c.g.s, we set $$k=\frac 1{4\pi\epsilon_0}=1$$
which gives $$\epsilon_0=\frac 1{4\pi}$$
This conversion works, for example, in Gauss' law:
in SI $$\vec{\nabla}\cdot\vec{E}=\frac\rho{\epsilon_0}$$ and in c.g.s $$\vec{\nabla}\cdot\vec{E}=4\pi\rho$$
Now, we know $c^2=\frac 1{\epsilon_0\mu_0}$, so in order to convert $\mu_0$ (that usually appears in the SI form) into c.g.s, I thought the substitution would be $$\mu_0=\frac {4\pi}{c^2}$$
However, this doesn't yield the correct laws in c.g.s.
For example, Amper's law in SI is $$\vec{\nabla}\times\vec{B}=\mu_0\vec{j}$$
But in c.g.s it is $$\vec{\nabla}\times\vec{B}=\frac {4\pi}c \vec{j}$$ And not $$\vec{\nabla}\times\vec{B}=\frac {4\pi}{c^2} \vec{j}$$
as I would have expected. So it seems $\mu_0=\frac{4\pi}c$ is the correct substitution.
How can that be? Where did one $c$ go? What is another assumption I am missing?