I was talking to a professor in my institution which works in Lorentz Violation of various QF theories.
While we talk about a SUSY lagrangian, I asked him if we could have a fermion acquiring VEV and break the Lorentz invariance of the theory.
He told me that, it implies a CONSTANT FERMION and it does not make sense. And I'm wondering now, does it or does it not?
