Is this really a derivation as in the mathematical sense or are
Lorentz transformations a law in themselves apart from conservation of
the spacetime metric.
The Lorentz transformations do not form a law in themselves, but are derived mathematically from the conservation of the Minkowski metric $\eta$.
In the derivation, one considers which transformations would leave this special metric invariant, specifically:
$X \cdot X = X^\mathrm{T} \eta X = {X'}^\mathrm{T} \eta {X'}$
where $X'$ was transformed by transformation $\Lambda$:
$X' = \Lambda X$
The question then arises as to exactly what form this $\Lambda$ would have to take in order for $\eta$ to remain invariant. The derivation comes to the conclusion that $\Lambda$ must be part of the Lorentz group for the above condition to apply. (further information on this can be found, for example, in the Wikipedia article quite far down).
This Lorentz group of possible transformations also allows time or space inversions, however. The Lorentz boosts you are referring to form a subgroup of these possible transformations if you omit such inversions (called proper Lorentz transformations).
As explained by the previous answers, however, these transformations only apply between unaccelerated systems and are not general in this sense. Their special meaning comes from the fact that it is assumed that two unaccelerated systems should be physically indistinguishable and thus all physical laws/equations should be invariant under Lorentz transformations. When comparing (more general) accelerated systems, one expects the physics to change during the transformation, and thus the laws of physics may also change (e.g. due to an added centripetal force).
In fact, this is closely related to rotations in Euclidean space. In classical mechanics with Galilean transformations, one of the requirements is the isotropy of space: i.e. the laws of physics should be formulated in such a way that they are invariant, regardless of how the experiment is rotated/oriented.