10

If the price of a share automatically declines the same amount as the dividend on the ex-div. date why don't people short the stock right before the ex-date and then when the share price drops relative to the div. payout cover the short and make a profit. Example, shares of Company A are trading at $10.00 a share on Dec 2, Gordon Gekko decides to short the stock. On Dec 3 the stock goes ex-div. and Company A is paying a 10% div or $1.00 per share. Because of this the stock opens at $9.00 a share to reflect the dividend. Why can't GG cover the short at $9.00 and walk away with a $1.00 per share profit? Is this illegal or is there some regulation to prevent this?

Victor
  • 20,987
  • 6
  • 48
  • 85
user11880
  • 101
  • 1
  • 1
  • 3

1 Answers1

15

When you short a stock and the stock goes ex-div. you have to pay out an amount equal to the dividend. So in your example, GG would short the stock at $10.00, buy back at $9.00 and be charged $1.00 for the dividend. Net effect $0.00.

Victor
  • 20,987
  • 6
  • 48
  • 85