I am currently evaluating buying a term insurance and very confused with few concepts around time value and evaluating the right option.
- Regular payments - you pay for 30 years lower amount now but higher total
- Limited payment - you pay for 10 years higher amount now but lesser total
I thought of evaluating the situation by finding the present value of money in both the cases for each year. Idea was to estimate how much does it cost me in today's money in total to understand which is cheaper.
Formula used - amt/((1+r)^term)
This is where my confusion started r- discount rate( say risk less investment in a bond with 8% return)is usually defined opportunity cost you lose by not investing that money. Amount I am losing by not investing the amount but paying upfront.
Problem is, I donot have all that money right now to keep it invested and take regular cashouts to make it payments. That money will be earned in that year only.
So does it make sense to calculate PV in this case where the assumption is that money is invested and hence you are discounting by that rate.
What would be the best way to evaluate this? Shall i take a diff of monthly installments and find that missed growth? In that case, shall I also consider the monthly diff after 10 years since I will be saving that and can be invested at that time too which is full instalment amt of 30 years plan invested for 20 years?