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If I have a text conversation between myself and another party, both of whom reside in 2 party consent states in the US, if I remove all reasonably identifying information, do I still need consent from the other person to use the data? Does this change if I am using it to fine-tune an LLM for public use?

belkarx
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1 Answers1

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Consent only applies to audio recordings

Written communication (and, usually soundless video recording) is not covered.

Dale M
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