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The town of Centreville in Maryland has enforced a 25% increase on water usage charges for 2021 and another 25% increase through 2022 due to underestimating the cost to replace century-old water pipes.

Is it appropriate for the town to charge sewerage usage for outside watering such as sprinklers, garden hoses, etc. as well?

Right now as it stands everyone, I know is being charged sewerage usage based on how much water they use even though not all water usage requires sewerage use, since the water does not ever go into the sewer system.

Only Solution I see:
A meter that only monitors sewage waste.

phoog
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dogefather
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5 Answers5

26

As there are commonly no meters on sewer outlets, if sewer charges are to be based on usage, they must be based on water usage. This is a very common practice, I have encountered it in several different US states, including NY, NJ, and MD.

There is no way to accurately measure how much of the water use is used outside and does not flow down the sanitary sewer connection. Also, much of the water used may eventually flow down a storm sewer, and so adds to the burden on the sewer system as a whole.

In any case, measuring sewer usage by total water usage is the closest estimate possible, aside from the kind of "return factor" adjustments mentioned in the comment by Nate Eldredge. Use of such a return factor might be better policy, but I can't find any law or case that mandates it.

David Siegel
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17

The city won't charge you if you install a separate meter that measures water use for irrigation purposes, aka a 'yard meter'. WSSC Water (company handling water supply for Mongtomery County, MD) has a separate page that explains it:

If you use a lot of water only outside your home - to water the lawn or garden or fill a pool - and that water does not return to our sewerage system, you might find it cost-effective to get a sub-meter. Then the "Sewer Usage" fee on your bill would reflect only household, or inside, water consumption.

Queen Anne County's website (where Centreville is located) likewise mentions it:

A single yard sprinkler uses as much water in one hour as a typical home uses in 24 hours. Unless you have a ‘yard meter’ used strictly for irrigation, you will also be paying a sewer fee for the irrigation water.

So this situation is already well covered in law and you can stop paying sewage charges for irrigation if you add a separate meter.

Journeyman Geek
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JonathanReez
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6

As others have noted, the problem is metering, or rather, lack thereof. This can actually come up in two ways:

  • Water usage that does not count as sewer usage

This is the initial question. It affects different users to varying degrees. I have heard of some places billing a little differently if you have a swimming pool, as a single fill of a pool can be as much, or more than, a month of regular water but not sewer usage. The flip side of pools is that in many areas pool maintenance companies, landscapers, etc. can pay a fee to make use of hydrants for such purposes, which particularly for pools is a big benefit as a hydrant can typically fill up a pool much faster than a regular residential water connection.

If everyone gets credit for "some water doesn't go in the sewer" then there really is nothing to do - if everyone gets 10% credit, then everyone's bill has to be dropped by 10% volume but raised 10% per gallon to compensate because the sewage plant still needs to be paid for. So end result is "nothing", unless there is separate metering for large water-not-sewer users.

The one exception I could see, but which should be incorporated into the billing, is if you have municipal water but no sewer connection - i.e., septic tank. That should be easy enough - pay for 100% of the water, but nothing for sewer.

  • Sewer usage that does not come from water usage

When I first encountered this it didn't make any sense! It turns out that there are some places using well water but municipal sewer. In that case, the sewage has to be metered in order for the utility to know how much to bill for sewage.

So really any combination is possible. But metering doesn't come for free. A classic example is lighting in front of houses. Originally this was gas and later electric. But in both cases often not metered, because a meter - and meter reading (in the days before remote reading) is not free. A calculated price is determined based on the type of light and billed accordingly. Sometimes, in the case of electric, the bulbs burn out and years later the next owner of the house gets their first electric bill and asks what the "lighting charge" is for - and finds out it was for a light that doesn't work...and that the previous owner paid for even though it wasn't working. Really.

0

I have seen a place that based the sewer charge on water use in January when you would be doing very little outside watering. I think that's the best solution in most situations.

-2

The question; is it appropriate, I would have to answer "no". Is it normal, probably "yes". Can it be better addressed? Yes, it can, with a little common sense. My city in UT just took on this issue. Most houses have secondary (non-potable) water available for outside water usage. Some older houses or areas do not have that available to them, and get billed for sewer use based on water usage (like everyone else). What the city did to relieve the burden for these residents was to apply an "average water usage" amount to households without secondary water available, and adjust their sewer charges accordingly. The solution probably isn't perfect, but it seems to have worked to some degree. I DO have secondary water, and my sewer bill did not increase after the adjustments were applied city-wide. Those without secondary available got some relief on their sewer charges, which is completely fair in my opinion.

As a side note: the ONLY way I knew about this was by attending Planning Board and City Council meetings. If you want to see changes, you MUST get involved.

rgoers
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