I viewed a police video of a victim that was involved in a hit and run. The officer asked the victim if they would like to press charges for hit and run. The victim replied yes, and the officer arrested the perpetrator when eventually found.
If the victim, who stated and appeared unharmed, replied no, would the perpetrator not have been arrested and charged for hit and run? Why would such a crime not be prosecuted as an interest of the state? Why is the victim deciding what crimes get prosecuted or not? If this was factually correct, when does a crime not require consent of the victim to prosecute? And does it vary from state to state?