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If Jurisdiction A considers X to be illegal, and Bob (a member of A) goes to jurisdiction B and commits X (B considers it legal), and goes back to A, is A still at liberty to prosecute Bob committing X?

In particular, I want the answer with the different jurisdictions being US states (like California and Texas), and X can be any of the laws that different states disagree on (age of consent, abortion, weed, sex work, etc.).

Edit: PLEASE NOTE: I'm not asking about the case where the jursidictions are different nations. I'm asking particularly about the case when the jurisdictions are within the same nation (the USA in particularly). This can be different states, or different districts, etc.. I know there are a lot of answer on here about the international case, but I couldn't find any answer for the case between different jurisdictions both contained in the USA. This includes the question linked that considers mine to be a duplicate.

chausies
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The principles of extraterritorial jurisdiction explained as between nation states also generally apply between U.S. states:

  • the default, unless expressly stated otherwise, is that statutes apply only within the state boundary
  • statutes can criminalize conduct outside of the state if they expressly say so
  • there are three recognized bases for a state asserting out-of-state reach of a criminal statute:
    • the conduct has in-state effects
    • if any element happened in the state
    • if the accused is domiciled in the state

See generally, Part I.A. of Darryl K. Brown, "Extraterritorial State Criminal Law", Post-Dobbs, 113 J. Crim. L. & Criminology 853 (2024).

Jen
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