In cases where national law conflicts with EU law, the primacy of EU law dictates that EU law takes precedence. However, indirect effect requires national courts to interpret national law in line with EU law, but not "Contra Legem" (i.e., courts should not reinterpret national law in a way that contradicts its clear wording). If national law clearly contradicts EU law, it should not be reinterpreted to align with EU law.
Under what circumstances does primacy require national courts to disregard national law, and when should indirect effect with the principle of "No Contra Legem" be used?