Introduction/Scenario:
Suppose an organization—charitable, for-profit or of any other category—solicits some product or service from a provider or manufacturer. Work is done by the provider, but the organization then notices or decides that the solicitation was unmandated, and even forbidden: an official made a mistake, or misused their authority. Suppose also that the product, or service, has not been rendered. The organization notifies the provider of the situation—but the provider demands some or all of the payment.
Now,
- on the one hand, the organization is required to expend money on this service or product, so how can it be legitimate for it to make that expenditure after discovering that the solicitation was forbidden?
- on the other hand, the provider did expend effort, and probably has a written obligation to pay, and (let's assume) it acted in good faith, not having reason to believe anything was wrong with providing the service or product; so why should it not be remunerated for its efforts? And if it is—who is to pay it, other than the organization?
Actual Question:
What are the different approaches (assuming there is more than one) to resolving this dilemma? What principles determine whether, and to what extent, the organization would be liable to pay in this situation?
Notes:
- I'm interested in answers from different legal systems, but particularly continental/civil law and common law systems. Answers from legal-philosophical sources rather than actual legal systems are also relevant.
- IANAL, sort of. I have some legal experience but not in this domain, so I might be asking something simple and mundane using awkward terms.