A creditor can request garnishment of a debtor's wages to help repay a debt. In my understanding, part of the practical advantage of garnishing wages is that it enlists a third party (the debtor's employer) to collect a debt when the debtor is unwilling to pay.
What if the debtor is a landlord who collects most of their income through rent payments: could a court direct the tenant to "garnish" rent payments by paying the creditor instead of their landlord?
Practical Scenario
Here's a scenario where this might be a practical route: Assume that the debt at issue is an assessment levied by a condo association against Alex (a single condo owner) to pay for building repairs. Alex rents his condo to Beth. If the association were to sue Alex, the court case may drag on without them seeing any money for a long time. But Beth might be quite willing to cooperate and shift her rent payments to the association immediately, particularly if the repairs impact her directly.
My Question:
- Is this legal? Is there any precedent for such a court order?
- In the hypothetical scenario described, is this approach actually practical, vis-a-vis other options?
If important, assume the jurisdiction is the USA, state of Illinois.
