In the movie, The Man In The Gray Flannel Suit, a number of legally questionable events occur. They appear to me to be improper practice but as I'm not au fait with US law on property, wills and so on then I can't be sure.
A man who wants to ward off a challenge to his grandmother's will goes to the local judge and seeks his advice on the matter.
My impression is that this man should go to a lawyer; and that the judge should refuse to discuss this matter or any other that might arrive in court with anyone.
To prevent the conflict between the man who approached him and another man who made a similar approach on the same matter (the will challenger), the judge arranges for both parties to attend his office at an agreed time without either party knowing that the other would also be there.
This is at the very least an interference with normal process of law. A judge should administer the law in contentious cases - not obviate it.
At the meeting, the judge had already investigated the background and finances of both parties through sources he does not disclose. His questioning of the two men shows a distinct bias against the will challenger despite the latter having been a servant & carer to the elderly in the final years of her life. The will challenger storms off to see his NYC attorney threatening a suit.
Surely this is exactly the sort of scenario that any responsible judge should have tried to avoid. I am not naive about professional practice by doctors, lawyers, etc in a small town but even the the standards of the time (c. 1955) what is presented here amounts to little more than a fix-up by two members of the upper middle-class against a person who has been a domestic servant his entire life aimed to null his claim to the property promised to him on the death of the care-receiver.
Subsequently, the official inheritor of the property, accompanied by his wife, approaches the judge with a view to facilitating payments of $100 a month to a woman in Italy with whom he fathered a child during WW2.
My impression is that the man and his wife could have got this monthly transfer done directly themselves via a bank or money-transfer agency; or else indirectly via an attorney, accountant or payments company if they wanted official anonymity and/or freedom from legal liability to make future higher payments in the event of a claim by the family in Italy. For a judge to involve himself in such a matter - something that could well give rise to contentious case later - seems very unwise and I would fear potentially open to charges of misuse of office.
For the record, I do not have any beef against the themes of this great movie and I felt as tearful as many others did upon viewing it. But the shabbiness of the processes involved in Tom Rath's absolution takes from the full enjoyment of the movie from both the representational plausibility and moral viewpoints.
Can anyone versed in US law comment on my concerns about judicial conduct here?