Many questions on this site ask a question of the form:
- assuming X committed offence Y, why did the prosecution not charge X with offence Y?
E.g. (paraphrasing):
- Why would the U.S. Attorney focus on civil-rights law, rather than laws specific to homicide? For example, why not focus on 18 U.S. Code ยง 1112 - Manslaughter, where the concept of willfulness is not applicable?
- Why don't US prosecutors press for imprisonment for crime in the banking industry?
- Can a prosecutor decline to press charges?
- What happens if a prosecutor refuses to file charges?
- In the Hush Money case, why was Trump not charged with the "other" crimes?
So: why might the prosecution not charge?
Certainly, if you want to know whether the facts as you understand them make out offence Y in the relevant jurisdiction, that is a different question. Or if you want to know whether offence Y has a limitation period or some other barrier that would prevent charging it, that likewise is a different question. But if you're asking: "looks like X committed Y, and Y was available to be charged, so why wasn't X charged with Y?" - that's what this question covers.