The owner has no criminal liability
In the united-kingdom, criminal liability in a situation like this would be governed by the Dangerous Dogs Act 1991. In particular, see Section 3 (Keeping dogs under proper control):
(1) If a dog is dangerously out of control in any place in England or Wales (whether or not a public place)
is guilty of an offence, or, if the dog while so out of control injures any person [or assistance dog], an aggravated offence, under this subsection.
Under most circumstances, this would render the owner criminally liable for such damage. However, there is an exception raised immediately below this subsection:
(1A) A person (āDā) is not guilty of an offence under subsection (1) in a case which is a householder case.
A "householder case" is defined as one in which a) the dog acted dangerously inside a place of dwelling or accommodation, and b) the victim was either a trespasser or reasonably believed to be a trespasser. This would protect the owner from criminal liability.
Your answer specifically mentions death, so it's worth noting that for a conviction of murder or voluntary manslaughter, the defendant must have intent to kill (which is not present here). Similarly, for involuntary manslaughter, the defendant must act recklessly (which is not the case here either).
The owner has no civil liability
There is a separate question on whether the owner will incur civil liability (ie be sued). The law here is governed by the Occupier's Liability Act 1984 (the duty owed by occupiers to trespassers). This is not to be confused with the Occupiers' Liability Act 1957 which relates to visitors rather than trespassers. In particular, see Section 1 (Duty of occupier to persons other than his visitors):
(3) An occupier of premises owes a duty to another (not being his visitor) in respect of any such risk as is referred to in subsection (1) above if ā
a) he is aware of the danger or has reasonable grounds to believe that it exists;
b) he knows or has reasonable grounds to believe that the other is in the vicinity of the danger concerned or that he may come into the vicinity of the danger (in either case, whether the other has lawful authority for being in that vicinity or not); and
c) the risk is one against which, in all the circumstances of the case, he may reasonably be expected to offer the other some protection.
On the facts presented in your question, there is no reason to believe that there will be trespassers on his premises. Similarly, even if this were the case, the question would then be whether or not the owner should reasonably be expected to offer protection. This is a question of fact, not law, and would depend upon the specific circumstances. Based on your description, however, it seems unlikely that the burglar will succeed in either of these cases. Lastly, even if the owner was found to have satisfied the above, the defence of illegality (ie damages suffered while committing a serious crime are unlikely to be recoverable) applies.
In summary: on the facts presented in the question, there is no case for criminal or civil liability. On additional facts, there could be, however, the defence of illegality is likely to protect the owner from civil liability.